NDA NA EXAM DATE 2020 APPLICATION, TRAINING,ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA,PAY SCALE
Now a days it is very difficult to find eligibility criteria of NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY AND NAVAL ACADEMY , but No need to worry here i ll tell you everything about how you eligible for nda. you can find herea comprehensive guide of eligibility for NDA. nda exam 2020 date application form last date announced by upsc, upsc declared exam notification twice in a year for recruiting best capable candidate to lead in IN
DIAN AIR FORCE, INDIAN ARMY, INDIAN NAVAL as an officer. Candidate should gone through various exam steps ahead. The very first step is to fill the examination form .Nda exam 2020 date application form last date.
HOW TO APPLY :-
- The very first step is recommended to read full notification released by UPSC and also you can read in SARKAARI NAUKRI.COM if you find youself eligible then go to next step.
- Go to upsc.nic.in and register here yourself.
- Fill out all the detail and upload photo and signature.
- Make payment and take a print out of receipt of submission examination form for future reference.
- The ID CARD which you are using during filling of examination form , carry the same ID CARD in all the exams conduct by the NDA/NA.
Nda exam 2020 date application form last date.
|NDA NOTIFICATION- 2021||DATE OF NOTIFICATION||DOWNLOAD LINK|
|NDA/NA (I)||COMING SOON|
|NDA/NA (II)||COMING SOON|
How to find yourself eligible for NDA ?
It is difficult to find about all eligibility condition for your candidature. Every organisation wants different ability, knowledge, physical standards for an officer,you have to fulfill their all measure’s of eligibility to become an officer. Many veteran recommend that you have to be strong mentally and physically . You can see all eligible measure’s right here below to mark yourself a eligible candidate.
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM 2020 DATE APPLICATION FORM LAST DATE :-
ELEGIBILITY CRITERIA :-
By location :-
(i). a citizen of India,
(ii). a subject of Bhutan,
(iii). a subject of Nepal,
(iv). a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, OR a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan,
Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
AGE,SEX AND MARITAL STATUS :-
Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 2001 and not later than 1st July, 2004 are eligible.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.
ELIGIBILITY IN EDUCATION QUALIFICATION :-
(i) For Army Wing of NDA:—
12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
(II) FOR AIR FORCE AND NAVAL WING OF NDA :-
12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University. Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also
apply for this examination.
Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to ”Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’’ .
For Naval Academy candidates to “Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room
No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011″ by 24th December, 2020 failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
All other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates.
Certified true copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.
(a). Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Senior Secondary School Examination Certificate available on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission.
(b). Once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed.
(c). Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training.
ELIGIBILITY IN PHYSICAL STANDARD :-
|Age (years)|| Minimum weight |
for all ages
|Age: 17 to 20 years|| Age: 20+01 day -
|Height (cm)||Weight (Kg)||Weight (Kg)||Weight (Kg)|
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :-
- Candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. Thee-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website upsc.gov.in.
- No ADMIT CARD sent by the post.
- If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card, he should at once contact the Commission.
- Information in this regard can be obtained from the Phone Nos. 011–23385271/011–23381125/011–23098543 Extn 4119, 4120.
- candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions.
- Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
- Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in their online applications are valid and active.
- All Communications to the Commission should invariably contain the following particulars.
1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID).
3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address as given below.
- For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters, A.G’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473.
For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice— Naval Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011, Phone No.23010097/23011282.
For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Air Headquarters, Directorate of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ‘J’ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi- 110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610..
WHAT TO DO IF YOU CLEAR WRITTEN TEST ?
After having cleared the written exam candidate should log on to following website for SSB and INTERVIEW dates :-
Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests, if any, relating to their interview or visit website of respective service headquarters after 20 days from the announcement of written results as address described in above section.
Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be addressed to the Administrative Officer of the Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has been received. No action will be taken on letters received by
Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in the written examination is likely to be held during the months of July 2020 to September 2020 or as suitable to Recruiting Directorate.
ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES (nda exam 2020 date application form last date):
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where
candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in addition to the
above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS). Candidates with Air Force as one of the choice would also undergo CPSS if they qualify SSB and are willing.
SELECTION PROCEDURE :-
It is a two stage selection procedure :-
Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude test and Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along with one photocopy each of : (i) Original Matriculation passcertificate or equivalent in support of date of birth,
(ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent in support of educational qualification.
Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the
Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect .
To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in
(i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion.
(ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above
candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for flying branch of Air Force, should separately qualify the CPSS. Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a single combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility, medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not be
considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses.
EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE IS GIVEN COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) (PILOT APTITUDE TEST) ONLY ONCE IN LIFE. THE GRADES SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE WHO FAILS IN THE CPSS CANNOT APPLY FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL
EXAMINATION SCHEME :-
The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—
Mathematics 01(exam code) -21⁄2 Hours (duration) 300(max.marks)
General Ability Test 02(exam code) 21⁄2 Hours(duration) 600(max marks)
Total – 900
SSB Test/Interview: 900
THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.
In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.
MATHEMATICS (01 EXAM CODE, MAX MARKS – 300)
Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its
applications. Logarithms and their applications.
MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :-
Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.
Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric
functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:-
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :-
Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples. Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.
INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :-
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration bysubstitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—applications.
Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equationby examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in problems of growth and decay.
VECTOR ALGEBRA :-
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications work done by a force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems
STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :-
Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.
Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events.
Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.
GENERAL ABILITY TEST (Code No. 02)
Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200):-
The question paper in English will be designed to test thecandidate’s understanding of English and workman like use ofwords. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar andusage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended textto test the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400):-
The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events. – The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics):-
Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer. Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye. Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following:Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers,
Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry):-
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water. Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun-
Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science):-
Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals. Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.
Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention. Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.) A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi. Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy, SocialismSocialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography):-
The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Naturalregions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events):-
Knowledge of Important events that have happened inIndia in the recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities and sports.
INTELLIGENT PERSONALITY TEST:-
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process:-
stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I
are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests arePicture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR
Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by threedifferent assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage. The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their train ability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
ELIGIBILITY IN MEDICAL PROCEDURE :-
A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by thePresident of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.
5. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated about the provision of Review Medical Board.
6. For Medical Standards for Army, Navy and Air Force (FlyingBranch and Ground Duty Branch) refer Annexure ‘A’. Annexure ‘B’ and Annexure ‘C’ respectively. Annexure -A
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY:-
(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress
and strain of service conditions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war.
(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed Forces.
(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should have a basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties or unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness.
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given
to State.Medical Standards.
2. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in
the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities.
Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.
3. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any
disease he has to perform of military duties in any terrain.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health.There should be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect development of any system.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.
(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.
(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of theskull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system.
(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic incl hypertension, and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies/immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system,
(r) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of genito-urinary system including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/syndrome/disability.
4. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits noticed duringmedical examination will be a cause for rejection.
Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions
which lead to rejection or eligibility candidature are:-
(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal-united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformitiesof spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers,deformed joints like cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knockknees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri-auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/ adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions:-
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower
jaw which may hamper efficient mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks
from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or general
nutrition or performance of duties efficiently.
(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesions of chest wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended testis, varicocele, organomegaly, solitary kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and hyperhydrosis.
Pension,g ratuity and casualty pensionary award will be
admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.
Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in
force from time to time.
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